I had a teacher that professed a lecture that said the words “all” and “whole” share the same origin.
The arguments were very trusty. When everyone in the room was believing in him, he told that it was a joke to prove that even a good theory is nothing if it cannot be tested.
He was very convincent in his explanation, that after he telling me he took the arguments from his mind and not from actual facts, the doubt is still tormenting me.
All and whole came from the same steem. If so, when did they take their ways apart?
r.parra, from Brazil.

According to worldwide renowned philologist Julius Pokorny 1887-1970 “all” comes from PIE root al-³ and “whole” from kailo- making them distinct, not indentical, with respect to theoretical origin.

Strange joke, must lose something in the translation.  But if the words really do not come from the same background as mentioned above, then let the torment go.  They are not of the same origin.
And welcome to the forum/agora.  Please do not be a stranger here.