Look at these sentences:
1. The best outcome would be for the tyrant to die.
2. The best outcome for the tyrant would be to die.
These sentences have not only a different meaning, but also different grammar. In the second, ‘for’ is used as an ordinary preposition attached to ‘the tyrant’. In the first, however, it is used (as a preposition? a conjunction?) to introduce a subject-infinitive construction, equivalent to ‘...that the tyrant dies’. Such usage is common, but is it correct? If so, how should it be analysed in grammatical terms?
