billydal - 15 April 2008 02:57 PM
I have noticed that the print media, usually the medium the “sets” the language, has decided that the pronoun “none” is a plural rather than a singular. I usually read the NYT on the Internet and have written them to complain, but I have received no response. If anyone can give me some feedback, I would appreciate it. (By the way, I would like to thank this forum for including a spell check; I am a lousy speller).
You might want to see what The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language: Fourth Edition has to say about ‘none’:
USAGE NOTE: It is widely asserted that none is equivalent to no one, and hence requires a singular verb and singular pronoun: None of the prisoners was given his soup. It is true that none is etymologically derived from the Old English word n, “one,” but the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke and is widespread in the works of respectable writers today. Of course, the singular usage is perfectly acceptable. The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial. When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee. None can only be plural in its use in sentences such as None but his most loyal supporters believe (not believes) his story.
Compact Oxford Dictionary has the following view:
— USAGE Some traditionalists maintain that none can only take a singular verb (as in none of them is coming tonight rather than none of them are coming tonight). However, none is descended from Old English nan meaning ‘not one’, and has been used for around a thousand years with either a singular or a plural verb, depending on the context and the emphasis needed.