It seems I have been using these words incorrectly for some time.  Specifically, using it’s as the possessive form.  Not only am I 99% sure that it was taught to me that way but I am almost certain that I’ve seen various language sources over the years indicate it’s is the correct possessive usage also.

So, my questions is.. was there any sort of change with respect to the usage of these words in the last 10 or 20 years?

This is a common problem in English. It’s so easy to get it wrong. After all, ‘s is used to mark the possessive in Garzo’s or Typo’s. However, just as we say his, hers and theirs without apostrophe, the possessive form of it is its - without an apostophe.

The form it’s is only used as a contraction of it is. I’ve used it’s in the second sentence of this reply.

Its is a new word. It doesn’t appear in the King James Bible - where his did duty for nongendered possessives. However, its has been around for a godd few hundred years.

Have fun,

- Garzo.
Please hang around and join in with the Agora.

Welcome to Agora, Typo!

The unbroken chain of English tradition has never been broken, of course.  Writing its with an apostrophe is an easy mistake, but has never been an established convention.

In fact, it’s can only mean either it is or it has (has in sense of perfective auxiliary).

Looking forward to seeing more of your posts,
Flaminius