I’m sorry I wasn’t on the ball with this first time around. I don’t think I really understood the question. However, veneration is due to RK for her wonderful answer.
You can only form a conditional sentence with inversion rather than the usual if-clause if ‘had’ (past tense) is the operator.
If he had been here…
Had he been here…
If she had played…
Had she played…
If she had been told…
Had she been told…
The connexion here is that all the clauses are in the past perfect (creating what some grammars call the third conditional).
Other auxilliary verbs cannot be inverted in the same way:
If I am playing football…
*Am I playing football… (this sounds like a question, not a conditional).
If she did play for the Polish national team…
*Did she play for the Polish national team… (again it sounds like a question and not a conditional)
The verb ‘have’ has to be in the past tense:
If he has played before…
*Has he played before… (again it looks like a question)
Inversion can happen when ‘had’ is the only verb of the if-clause, too:
If he had a pair of decent football boots…
Had he a pair of decent football boots…
There you go: if ‘had’ (past tense) is the operator or only verb in an if-clause, the clause can use inversion.
I feel that forming an conditional by inversion is rather formal, but it does occur quite frequently in colloquial speech. One of the mistakes I often make, when I form conditionals by inversion, is leaving a ghost ‘have’ behind (this is the so-called ‘plupluperfect’). THis structure is wrong, but I can’t help doing it:
If he had joined us…
*Had he have joined us…
Or even:
*Had he of joined us…
- Garzo.